The logical expression $(p\wedge q)\vee (\neg p)$ is equivalent to:

Solution

1. Start with the given expression: $(p\wedge q)\vee (\neg p)$.
2. Apply the distributive law to rewrite the expression as $(p\vee \neg p)\wedge (q\vee \neg p)$.
3. Recognize that $(p\vee \neg p)$ is a tautology, denoted as $T$, simplifying the expression to $T\wedge (q\vee \neg p)$.
4. Since $T\wedge X$ is equivalent to $X$, the expression simplifies to $\neg p\vee q$.
5. Hence the answer is (B).